Aren’t God’s Moral Laws Merely Subjective If He Can Command Us to Break Them?
Description
Questions about whether God’s moral laws are merely subjective if he can command us to break them, and whether contrasting the Torah with barbaric Near Eastern laws to show moral improvement proves anything since you can’t justify bad laws by comparing them to worse ones.
Are God’s moral laws objective, or can they be broken if God commands us to break them? Aren’t his laws merely subjective if we can go against them when he sees fit?
In Is God a Moral Monster, Paul Copan often contrasts the Torah with barbaric Near Eastern laws to show moral improvement, but if I kill an adult and justify it because others kill children, aren’t I still a monster?
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